TWI and The Bible... Is that really the answer to gaining "LIFE".

[rodneyomccarthy]

I love the scriptures, and it is a record of God's words, words spoken in the past, that "CAN" still apply to us IF God moves upon those words and they become alive to us. Similar to Jesus on Emmaus road. But Hebrews 4:12 is NOT talking about ink on paper. IF the bible is God's only word, then how do you answer this?

IF the bible is our answer for our spiritual life we have to then consider, what the scriptures say about the bible.

Who had the bible, and who did not have the bible.

Then we must ask which of those persons had life, true life, the kind that Jesus promises.

I submit our life and truth comes from somewhere else, the scriptures are a road map, a plumb line...

IF that is not the case God failed a huge group who never had access to God's word (that is IF the bible is your definition of the word of God).

1). Did any of the masses have access to the bible (scriptures) in the Old Testament? NO!

2). Did any of the masses in the New Testament have access to the bible? NO!

*Could the masses read the bible if they had one? NO!

3). How many after the Resurrection, thru the dark ages had access to the bible and could read it? ZERO!

4). How many countries had "LIMITED" access to copies of the O.T. bible, in their own language? Only Israel!

5). When did, the bible become available in English, the language of the masses? The mid 1550's! How many people were literate? Hardly none!

6). When was the printing press created? 1440!

* SO basically, the masses (those that could read) have had a bible available to them for the last 500 yrs...

* Man, has a history that spans approx. 6000 years minus 500 years...

*So, for 5500 years' man was without the word of god...IS THAT WHAT YOU'RE TELLING ME?

Further Proof:

When you see the term "The Word of God" in the Bible it is either referring to Jesus or the Holy Spirit.

"He has a name written on Him which no one knows except Himself. He is clothed with a robe dipped in blood, and His name is called "The Word of God." (Rev 19:12-13)

When you see the following terms in scripture, this is what it is referring to:

The word = The gospel

Examples:

(Acts 4:4) Howbeit many of them which heard the word (The gospel) believed; and the number of the men was about five thousand.

(Acts: 4:29) And now, Lord, behold their threatening's: and grant unto thy servants, that with all boldness they may speak thy word (The gospel),

(Acts 16:6) Now when they had gone throughout Phrygia and the region of Galatia, and were forbidden of the Holy Ghost to preach the word (The gospel) in Asia,

(2nd Timothy 4:2) Preach the word (The gospel); be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all longsuffering and doctrine.

(Hebrews 4:2) For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word (The gospel) preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.

(It is important to note in the verses above that the Bible had not yet been written yet as the OP has already mentioned, so how could "the word" be referring to the Bible? It's not possible.)

The Word of God = Jesus/Spirit

(Acts 4:31) And when they had prayed, the place was shaken where they were assembled together; and they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and they spake the word of God (Jesus) with boldness.

(Acts 13:5) And when they were at Salamis, they preached the word of God (Jesus) in the synagogues of the Jews: and they had also John to their minister.

(Acts 15:35) Paul also and Barnabas continued in Antioch, teaching and preaching the word of the Lord (Jesus), with many others also.

(Acts 17:13) But when the Jews of Thessalonica had knowledge that the word of God (Jesus) was preached of Paul at Berea, they came thither also, and stirred up the people.

(Acts 18:11) And he continued there a year and six months, teaching the word of God (Jesus) among them.

There are times in the Bible when "word" means a spoken word, but it is never referring to a written word. This tells us that the Bible is not the word of God and there is nowhere in the Bible that claims that it is. Instead the Bible tells us that "All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so, that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work." (2 Timothy 3:16-17) and that Jesus is "The Word of God." (Rev 19:13)

An example of the spoken word can be found in Rev 12:11

"And they overcame him by the blood of the Lamb, and by the word of their testimony; and they loved not their lives unto the death."

Their testimony would have no doubt been about the gospel of Jesus Christ. After all, the book of Revelation is about the revealing of Jesus Christ (Not some apocalyptic events in the future as Christian Zionist believe). And since the Bible interprets its self, whenever we see the "word of God" written anywhere in the Bible, it has to refer to Jesus. It never refers to to Bible.

 

 

[Thomas Loy Bumgarner]

As for number 3, some Jews and Gentiles were literate and could read transcripts/texts of Scripture in Hebrew, Aramaic, Koine Greek, and Latin, but were ordained clergy, monks, and royalty/aristocracy, but you are  correct, most could not read. You also are correct that Logos(wisdom) always refers to Yahweh/God the Father or Jesus Christ.

Edited August 24, 2017 by Thomas Loy Bumgarner

[Rocky]

So much for what the scriptures say about the bible...

"Lost for 1,500 years, the fourth-century commentary by African-born Italian bishop Fortunatianus of Aquileia interprets the Gospels as a series of allegories instead of a literal history.

"Dr Hugh Houghton, of the University of Birmingham, who translated the work, said it was an approach which modern Christians could learn from.

"The find adds weight to the idea that many early biblical scholars did not see the Bible as a history, but instead a series of coded messages which represented key elements of Christianity, he said."