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Agape as a Fruit of the Spirit


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I have started two previous threads about love;  Love when I believed in the biblical God and Sin and the Need for Perfect Love when I had stopped believing in this god

Now, I am beginning a third one as a result of my post today in the Fruit of the Spirit thread where I wrote,

"Although there is no specific "in crowd/out crowd fallacy," there is the bandwagon fallacy which "presumes that because a position is popular, it must therefore be correct.

Bandwagon Fallacy (includes a comic about Aristotle to make the point  ).

It's been my experience that being told something (e.g., agape love) is not available to you (a non-Christian) that is available to others (Christians) seems to fit in with this fallacy." 

I admit that the topic of love has always been an emotional one for me and this time, it is no different.  I had been taught about God's love since I was a child growing up in the Roman Catholic faith, and this foundation was what led me to search for it again in my troubled teens where I eventually ended up in a twi fellowship, experienced their initial lovebombing and remained for over a decade. 

At times, it has proven difficult as an atheist to let go of this indoctrinated beleef concerning the supernatural/spiritual origin and source of unconditional love.  During those times, I did feel inferior about my own ability to love myself and others without "any" conditions. 

In the extreme, this feeling of inadequacy can lead to some mental health issues.  It sometimes did for me and I'm pretty sure I'm not alone in this.  

So what's the deal here?  Is agape love only available to Christians because biblical writers (who wanted to sell their idea for a necessary savior from God's wrath due to man's sin nature) claimed it was and millions of people have since jumped on this bandwagon and so it must therefore be true?  Do Christians manifest agape love all the time and if not, then how is that different from non-Christians who do not manifest unconditional love all the time?  How was the word "agape" used in ancient Greek before it took on the meaning given to it in the new testament?

 

 

Edited by Charity
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48 minutes ago, Charity said:

 

So what's the deal here?  Is agape love only available to Christians because biblical writers (who wanted to sell their idea for a necessary savior from God's wrath due to man's sin nature) claimed it was and millions of people have since jumped on this bandwagon and so it must therefore be true?  Do Christians manifest agape love all the time and if not, then how is that different from non-Christians who do not manifest unconditional love all the time?  How was the word "agape" used in ancient Greek before it took on the meaning given to it in the new testament?

 

 

According to Wikipedia, the word was used rarest in classical Greek, but was used in various ways:

  • (as a verb) -- to greet with affection
  • to show affection for the dead
  • love for spouse or family

I'm not sure the writers of the New Testament meant it in any way other than just "love". If I remember correctly, virtually every use of the word "love" in English is translated from "agape". (In TWI some "teacher" would breathlessly reveal that some instance of love was ...the word agape...as if it was some cosmic truth). I believe that it was retroactively assigned the meaning or interpretation of love from or for God.  

Biblical writers and theologians needed to present love that proceeded from God, or manifested by Christians, was somehow different than love manifested by disbelievers. I doubt you could subjectively see any difference between Christians and non-Christians in how they love. Of course any attempt to meaningfully define what God's love entails runs into the problem of any possible unloving action by God spurring a redefinition of love that includes that action. 

 

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1 hour ago, Oakspear said:

According to Wikipedia, the word was used rarest in classical Greek, but was used in various ways:

  • (as a verb) -- to greet with affection
  • to show affection for the dead
  • love for spouse or family

 

Thanks Oakspear!  I spent the whole day online yesterday only to come up with what you so efficiently shared in three points.  I'll still share my longer version with its links so I'll have something to show for my time :wink2:.  

1.  “What agape means in ancient Greek writing somewhat differs from the word's contemporary use. The earliest references to agape in Greek writing use the term to refer to a deep love for a spouse or a close family member.  Agape's Greek origin is the verb agapao ”   Agape Love Meaning, Uses & Examples

2. "Agapē (αγάπη in Greek) is one of several Greek words translated into English as love. Greek writers at the time of Plato and other ancient authors used forms of the word to denote love of a spouse or family, or affection for a particular activity, in contrast to, if not with a totally separate meaning from, philia (an affection that could denote either brotherhood or generally non-sexual affection) and eros (an affection of a sexual nature, usually between two unequal partners, although Plato's notion of eros as love for beauty is not necessarily sexual). The term agape with that meaning was rarely used in ancient manuscripts, but quite extensively used in the Septuagint, the Koine Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible."  New World Encyclopedia

3. "The verb agapao is used extensively in the Septuagint as the translation of the common Hebrew term for love which is used to show affection for husband/wife and children, brotherly love, and God's love for humanity. It is uncertain why agapao was chosen, but similarity of consonant sounds (aḥava) may have played a part. It is not impossible that the Greek concept even originated as a transliteration from some Semitic tongue. This usage provides the context for the choice of this otherwise obscure word, in preference to other more common Greek words, as the most frequently used word for love in Christian writings. The use of the noun agape in this way appears to be an innovation of the New Testament writers, but is clearly derived from the use of the verb agapao in the Septuagint<ref>Agape as a term for love or affection is rarely used in ancient manuscripts." Art and Popular Culture

4. "The verb form goes as far back as Homer, translated literally as affection, as in "greet with affection" and "show affection for the dead".[2] Wikipedia

I enjoyed reading The Odyssey, so I'll share this as well.  Art and Popular Culture above also mentions Homer.  It reads, "Although some sources claim Agape appears in the Odyssey twice, the word is in fact not used. Instead, two forms of the word agape may be found: agapêton and agapazomenoi.  Agapêton is found in Book 5 of the Odyssey and means 'beloved' or 'well-loved' (referring to Odysseus and Penelope feelings for their son Telemachus).  Agapazomenoi is found in books 7 (Nausicaa saves Odysseus when he is starving, battered and naked after washing ashore on her island) and 17 (lines 30-45 when Odysseus' nurse Eurycleia saw him at first upon his return and 'with a burst of tears she came straight toward him' and the other maids gathered 'and they kissed his head and shoulders in loving welcome'of the Odyssey and means 'to treat with affection." (Words in Italics are added to the quote)   Pretty cool methinks :love3: .

 

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