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Apparently you are confirming that a change (i.e., any changes) in the gospel would equate to a dispensational distinction.

Edited by TLC

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1 hour ago, TLC said:

Apparently you are confirming that a change (i.e., any changes) in the gospel would equate to a dispensational distinction.

I'm not Raf but I have 2 problems with this post.

1. He is not *confirming there was a change in the gospel, nor is he saying the dispensational separations are valid.

2. Discussion of the legitimacy of dispensations belongs in a different thread.

 

What you are doing with this post is what I would consider baiting.Baiting isn't cool.

Edited by waysider

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1 hour ago, TLC said:

Apparently you are confirming that a change (i.e., any changes) in the gospel would equate to a dispensational distinction.

This is not an honest reflection of what I posted and will not be entertained.

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