I have a first hand recollection of him teaching that masturbation was the original sin. That's not an event you casually forget.
Yes. But don't remember when I first heard it. I remember a CFS camp on Shelter Island in July of 1973 that I was begging to go to after taking PFAL the prior week for the first time at the same location. 17 years old. THOSE were some of my very good memories.
Here's a thread on the CFS camp. Gotta love DWBH posts... always entertaining...
Shakespeare offers great examples. A passage I once thought I understood may have a completely different twist when understood in light of what the author was communicating. (Hour to hour becomes whore to whore.) Try THIS on for fun.
That was an interesting clip. What it doesn't discuss is the different regional accents that might also have come into play. Shakespeare was a Midlands man - probably, dropped "H"s and dropped "U"s, and generally a different accent from what there is in "received pronunciation." Also, as a Midlander, he may well have used words that were dialect words common to the local area but not nationally; or used words in a different way from "national" used. His vocab might also have included more "northern" words not necessarily known in provincial London.
Why is that relevant to this thread? Because there is actually no telling how words might have been used in different parts of the Roman or Christian eras. Was the way a word was used and understood in Ephesus or Corinth the same as how that same word might have been understood at the same time period in Jerusalem, Rome, Crete, etc. Similar, maybe, Same, maybe, maybe not.
What were the customs of the time, too? So what could that verse, that word, be referring to that might not be so obvious?
Americans use some words right now that are different from how the same words are used in British English. And Brits use some words differently from how many Americans might use them. Sometimes they even mean something offensive in the "other" use of the language (what some, perhaps not all, Americans do to tighten a spanner is an offensive word meaning masturbation in British English and thus a big insult to hurl at someone).
You cannot possibly read a Bible verse and tie a whole theology to it. That really is "private interpretation."
You have to read in context with other verses relating to the same subject. If you're more widely read, see what commentators have to say (and why). If you're even more widely read, you might have studied ancient languages and you're smart enough to see how ancient Syrian, ancient Aramaic etc changed. None of us here have laid claim to that level of education or study.
Wierwille frequently quoted Bullinger without understanding him. Bullinger explains how the Greek word translated "interpretation" basically means "to loose", and gives the example of dogs loosed upon the game. The misunderstanding is that Bullinger was emphasizing the act of "loosing", or releasing, Wierwille thought the emphasis should be on the viciousness or wildness or the dogs as they attacked the game
That never sat well with me. Even on the face of it, it seemed like nonsense. So I ignored his "interpretation" completely.
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Nathan_Jr
Well, there you have it.
One of the most private of private interpretations.
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waysider
Just be glad you didn't see it in the original.
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oldiesman
Yes. But don't remember when I first heard it. I remember a CFS camp on Shelter Island in July of 1973 that I was begging to go to after taking PFAL the prior week for the first time at the same location. 17 years old. THOSE were some of my very good memories.
Here's a thread on the CFS camp. Gotta love DWBH posts... always entertaining...
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Twinky
That was an interesting clip. What it doesn't discuss is the different regional accents that might also have come into play. Shakespeare was a Midlands man - probably, dropped "H"s and dropped "U"s, and generally a different accent from what there is in "received pronunciation." Also, as a Midlander, he may well have used words that were dialect words common to the local area but not nationally; or used words in a different way from "national" used. His vocab might also have included more "northern" words not necessarily known in provincial London.
Why is that relevant to this thread? Because there is actually no telling how words might have been used in different parts of the Roman or Christian eras. Was the way a word was used and understood in Ephesus or Corinth the same as how that same word might have been understood at the same time period in Jerusalem, Rome, Crete, etc. Similar, maybe, Same, maybe, maybe not.
What were the customs of the time, too? So what could that verse, that word, be referring to that might not be so obvious?
Americans use some words right now that are different from how the same words are used in British English. And Brits use some words differently from how many Americans might use them. Sometimes they even mean something offensive in the "other" use of the language (what some, perhaps not all, Americans do to tighten a spanner is an offensive word meaning masturbation in British English and thus a big insult to hurl at someone).
You cannot possibly read a Bible verse and tie a whole theology to it. That really is "private interpretation."
You have to read in context with other verses relating to the same subject. If you're more widely read, see what commentators have to say (and why). If you're even more widely read, you might have studied ancient languages and you're smart enough to see how ancient Syrian, ancient Aramaic etc changed. None of us here have laid claim to that level of education or study.
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Twinky
That never sat well with me. Even on the face of it, it seemed like nonsense. So I ignored his "interpretation" completely.
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