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Infoabsorption last won the day on January 11 2021

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  1. Good question. I've read a few books published by Xulon & occasionally I hear an ad by them on the local Christian radio station on the way to work. That is why I gave you their web address when you asked for publishers. As far as the contest goes, their intentions are speculation to me. Maybe they are just trying to discover some new talented writers and the contest is a way to get people to send them material.
  2. Mark, here is one to check into: https://www.xulonpress.com/
  3. Allan, these are very good questions. I believe that a coming of Christ occurred at 70AD. That coming was mentioned by James as drawing near when he wrote his epistle. James 5:8 be patient and stand firm, because the Lord’s coming is near. That judgement was not global in scale. The view that the calamities described in the various eschatological texts are global in scale mainly comes from a mis-translation of the Greek word "ge". "Ge" was translated as "earth" in most of the New Testament so when people read Matthew 24 or the book of Revelation they develop a mind picture that the events recorded effect the populations of the entire planet. Obviously, there wasn't a catastrophe around 70AD that caused a third of the green grass of the entire planet to burn up so most people assume these events must be in our future even though the time indicators suggest otherwise. So Christians have developed various theories to explain why "soon" doesn't really mean soon or "near" doesn't really mean near(see Rev. 1 v.1-3). Upon closer examination of the Greek word "ge" one will notice that "ge" can also be translated as "Land". If you look at the interlinear usage of "ge" it refers to the earth, soil, land, region, country, inhabitants of a region. https://biblehub.com/greek/1093.htm If the Greek word "ge" was translated as "Land" in most of the New Testament would the futurist viewpoints be so popular in this day and time? Here is a good word study of the Greek "ge" that should clear up a lot of confusion: https://adammaarschalk.com/2014/03/15/revelation-the-land-ge-is-referenced-22-times-more-often-than-the-world-kosmos/ I do believe a resurrection of the dead occurred at 70AD most of my partial preterist friends tend to disagree with. Some of them even put me into the full preterist category because of this. The bulk of these people resurrected at 70AD were the Old Testament saints such as Isaiah and King David etc.but also included the martyrs of the beast during the first century(see Rev. 20:4) This resurrection is mentioned in Daniel 12. A huge clue that this occurred at 70AD is Daniel 12:7: When the power of the holy people has been finally broken, all these things will be completed.” The power of the holy people which is also Daniel's people (But at that time your people—Dan12:1) was Israel and their power was broken at 70AD. Daniel was told to Go your way because the words are rolled up and sealed until the time of the end. Then Daniel was given a mysterious time indicator: From the time that the daily sacrifice is abolished and the abomination that causes desolation is set up, there will be 1,290 days. 12 Blessed is the one who waits for and reaches the end of the 1,335 days.13 “As for you, go your way till the end. You will rest, and then at the end of the days you will rise to receive your allotted inheritance.” This is referring to the initial outbreak of the Zealot rebellion that broke out in Judea in 66AD when Eleazar ben Hanania, the governor of the Temple, convinced the priests to stop the service of sacrifice for the Roman Emperor. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eleazar_ben_Hanania . At the completion of the 1335 days Daniel was resurrected. Daniel was told that the prophecy was rolled up and sealed because it's fulfillment would not happen in his lifetime. Daniel 12:13 states that Daniel would figuratively "rest" or in the literal sense die. So Daniel is told that the prophecy was sealed because it's fulfillment was far into the future but John is told in Revelation 22:10 to not seal up the words of the prophecy of this scroll, because the time is near. The rapture theory was concocted by John Nelson Darby in the 1830s. 1 Thessalonian 4:13-18 is more than likely referring to the resurrection and return of Christ at the end of human history. The meeting mentioned in 1 Thess. 4:17 was translated from the Greek word apantésis. Apantésis is a technical term describing the formal meeting of a king or other dignitary who arrives for a visit to a town or city. In ancient times a delegation would meet a king or dignitary outside of the city and then escort them back into the city for festivities. In the case of Christ's return at the end of human history and the subsequent resurrection, Christ will not be arriving from another town on earth. He will be coming down from heaven. The resurrection will occur instantly at his arrival and we will meet Christ figuratively in the air (our King) and escort Him back to the earth. This is not a secret event where millions of people will disappear and millions(or billions) will be left behind. Read up on John Nelson Darby to discover how we have accepted this doctrine as fact on flimsy evidence.
  4. The last "hour" mentioned here is a figurative amount of time not a literal 1 hour. It's referring to a few years. It was the period of time just before the Zealot rebellion & the Roman invasion of Judea in 66AD. The last days referenced by Peter in Acts 2 when he quoted Joel was about 40 years & it was Israel's (aka the Roman province of Judea) last days not the entire planet(Greek word "Ge")...which was the time period from the resurrection to the destruction of the temple in 70AD. The literal interpretation of certain parts of the bible crept into Christianity with John Nelson Darby, the father of modern dispensationalism, during the 1830's. Also, the thousand years mentioned in Revelation 20 is not a literal 1000 year period of time but symbolic for a very long period of time. The evidence for past fulfillment is even more apparent when one considers the Greek root word "mello". 'Mello" literally means "about to" and was left out of most of the King James translation. Instead of translating "mello" into English as "about to" they simply threw in words like "shall". I'll give you an example. If you look at revelation 17:8 from the KJV it reads like this: The beast that thou sawest was, and is not; and shall ascend out of the bottomless pit, and go into perdition Here is the Greek interlinear for revelation 17:8 - https://biblehub.com/text/revelation/17-8.htm You will notice from the Greek interlinear that "mellei" was translated into English as "shall". If you look at the NASB translation which considers the Greek "mellei" Rev 17:8 reads like this: The beast that you saw was, and is not, and is about to come up out of the abyss and [g]go to destruction. https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation+17%3A8&version=NASB Notice the difference? John stated that this particular beast was about to ascend at the time he received the vision but the King James translators felt differently.
  5. This view has become very popular among dispensational futurist scholars in their attempt to explain away the time indicators within the New Testament. Some of them also claim that the "last hour" from 1John 2:18 is the entirety of the church age. Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the last hour. I have a hard time believing that John would use the phrase "last hour" regarding the timing of the coming of the antichrist if the antichrist's coming was actually 1900+ years into the future. These futuristic concepts make absolutely no sense whatsoever when compared to what is actually written in scripture and dispensational scholars have resorted to performing exegetical gymnastics to explain away time references indicating a short period of time.
  6. Here is my 2 cents worth with regards to the sabbath. I agree that the sabbath was the 7th day (Saturday) and the change to the first day (Sunday) was a man-made construct. The question arises: does God require Christians in this day & time to still observe a sabbath? I think it is an important question and there doesn't appear to be any direct answers from the New Testament. I believe it is a very good idea to take 1 day out of the week to rest and pray etc. There definitely is nothing wrong with it and I think it's a very healthy way to live but I tend to agree with T-Bone that a sabbath is no longer a requirement for Christians based upon Colossians 2:16. Waxit - I disagree with your assessment that Colossians 2:16 is referring to a converted gentiles new way of life as a Christian. The context is referring to the feast days, the new moon festivals and sabbath days. The New Moon festivals were known as the Rosh Chodesh in Hebrew. Numbers 10:10 mentions the Rosh Chodesh: Also at your times of rejoicing—your appointed festivals and New Moon feasts—you are to sound the trumpets over your burnt offerings and fellowship offerings, and they will be a memorial for you before your God. I am the Lord your God.” Were new gentile Christians back then instructed to observe the New Moon festivals? I seriously doubt it. Here is another thing to consider. Are Christians now required to sound trumpets over burnt offerings on Hebrew new moon days? I do believe that the Jewish Christians living in Judea were observing all of the holy days and sabbaths etc. based on Matthew 5:18. Christ stated that the smallest letter or stroke would not pass from the Law until heaven and earth pass away. "Heaven & earth" being a symbol of the first century Temple that was destroyed in 70AD. After 70 AD all of that ended. If you look on down at verse 20: Wherefore if ye be dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world, why, as though living in the world, are ye subject to ordinances, 21 (touch not; taste not; handle not; The "touch not" "taste not" and "handle not" seemingly comes from among the rules of the Pentateuch regarding food. This chapter in Colossians seems to be referring to a new Christians freedom from the 613 commandments of the Mosaic Law.
  7. You're welcome T-Bone! I also have Penley's book on order. Most Christians are not aware of the concept that the "last days" mentioned in the New Testament is actually a reference to the last days of the Mosaic covenant which culminated in the destruction of the Temple in 70AD.
  8. There definitely are various dispensations or ages where God has allotted distinctive administrative principles throughout biblical history. Where I think Darby fouled up was his misunderstanding that there was an overlap of the Mosaic law age and the Christian age for approximately 40 years. Also the literal interpretation of certain passages that were meant by the authors to be figurative or symbolic have added to the confusion. This overlap of dispensations or ages is evident in Matthew 5:18: For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not [a]the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Are any Christians sacrificing lambs on an altar in Jerusalem? If you take Matthew 5:18 literally then we have been breaking many of the jots & tittles of the Mosaic covenant for 1900+ years since heaven & the planet earth are still in existence. Fact is, the "heaven & earth" Jesus mentioned in Matt. 5:18 was a symbol of the temple in Jerusalem. The temple was destroyed in 70AD. That was when "heaven & earth" passed away: http://www.reenactingtheway.com/blog/when-heaven-and-earth-passed-away-everything-changed879420187179853150181 After understanding this particular symbol and other symbols in the Bible various time references began to make sense to me. One of these time references is Hebrews 1:1: In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe. The writer(s) of Hebrews indicated that they were in the last days when the original letter was written. Dispensationalists have had to come up with clever explanations for these types of time references throughout the New Testament. One of them is the millennial day theory where each millennium is actually a day according to God. So the last 2000 years before Christ's coming are the last days according to this viewpoint. It's more difficult explaining James 5:7-9: Therefore be patient, brethren, until the coming of the Lord. The farmer waits for the precious produce of the soil, being patient about it, until [d]it gets the early and late rains. 8 You too be patient; strengthen your hearts, for the coming of the Lord is near. 9 Do not [e]complain, brethren, against one another, so that you yourselves may not be judged; behold, the Judge is standing [f]right at the [g]door. I know there are other translations that use "draweth nigh" or "at hand" in James 5:8 for the timing of coming of the Lord and dispensationalists and other futurists have a myriad of explanations for this such as "could happen at any moment even thousands of years into the future", but looking at the Greek there is no doubt that "at hand" or "draweth nigh" really means near in time or space. https://biblehub.com/greek/1448.htm Eggizó root word is eggus: near (in place or time) https://biblehub.com/greek/1451.htm No gray area there. So what could that mean if the coming of the Lord was near to the first century Christians? Realizing that there is a difference between Jesus coming in judgement of a particular entity or entities from 66-70 AD and Jesus return to the earth at the end of human history may be the key to making sense of all these difficult time statements such as "near", "soon" , "about to", "this generation" etc. In the Old Testament there is an example of God coming in judgement upon a particular region or country riding on clouds in the figurative sense. Isaiah 19:1 records this: A prophecy against Egypt: See, the LORD rides on a swift cloud and is coming to Egypt. The idols of Egypt tremble before him, and the hearts of the Egyptians melt with fear.
  9. I think it is both. Ephesians 2:14 speaks of the two as one. Eph. verse 12 states that the Gentiles were aliens from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers from the covenants of promise. They used figurative language and symbols to make sense of spiritual things.
  10. I was going to list the various references to first century Judea and Jerusalem in Revelation but that would be incredibly lengthy post and off topic so I will try and provide a shorter answer. Given the time statements such as Revelation 22:06(....sent His angel to show to His bond-servants the things which must soon take place), the "nations" must be a reference to the various territories within the land of Palestine during the first century: Judea, Phoenicia, Galilee, Samaria, Idumea, Philistia ,Gualanitis Decapolis, Perea, Nabatea. Most Christians view the events of Revelation as occurring on a global scale mainly because of the translation of the Greek word "ge" as "earth". "Ge" can also be translated as "land". "Ge" is not referring to the world at large in Revelation. It is referring to certain geographic location namely the land of Palestine: https://biblehub.com/greek/1093.htm Strong's usage: the earth, soil, land, region, country, inhabitants of a region. From 66-70 AD God's judgement occurred on that area and it was done through the Roman army. Christ ruling the nations(of Palestine) with a rod of Iron was a play on words. That rod of Iron was actually symbolic of a sword. More literally it was thousands of Roman swords. Roman blades were made of iron: https://www.timetrips.co.uk/rom-art-gladius.htm . The new covenant was in progress and offered to the Jews during the first century. Verse 6 states that Christ is the mediator of a better covenant(in the present tense when Hebrews was written ...during the first century). The first covenant was obsolete at the time Hebrews was written and ready to disappear(verse 13) and was finalized in 70AD. Hebrews 1 stated that they were in the last days in the first century: in these last days has spoken to us [b]in His Son etc. In the last days of what? The old covenant temple system perhaps? The writer(s) of Hebrews quoted from Jeremiah to show Jews that the new covenant was available to them at that time. I guess not every dispensationalist believes there will be a return to the law administration in the future. The way I understood it, the law was supposed to be reinstated during the 7 years tribulation period.
  11. The biggest disagreement I have with the theology of "Dispensationalism" is the notion that the dispensation of grace will end at some point in the future which then triggers a return to the law administration. There is no exegetical justification for this viewpoint. There is no indication from the New Testament that the dispensation of grace mentioned by Paul will have an end. . Eph. 3:6 : This mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus. That is the dispensation of grace in a nutshell. The gentiles inclusion in the new covenant will have no ending and will proceed into eternity. Isaiah 65:25 The wolf and the lamb will feed together...the wolf being a symbol of the gentiles and the lamb a symbol of Israelites. Darby, Bullinger etc. have added a lot of conjecture to a simple idea.
  12. I once believed the exact same thing as you but I no longer see VPW's teachings as God breathed. I see his teachings as mostly plagiarized. "TWI was something God lead me to for a reason that altered my life favorably forever, so I will take the good and learn to part with the bad. Men fail, God never fails. " This part I agree you 100%. I'm still trying to grasp the human suffering part but I think we should strive for justice for the victims.
  13. Looks like it will be a Cat-4 when it makes landfall. Would be a good idea for anyone living in that area to evacuate. Last year there were many people killed in Mexico Beach, FL who decided to ride out Hurricane Michael.
  14. Human without the bean, you are correct. Itchykoo Park was a nickname for Little Ilford Park in London. The park had a flower called the stinging nettle which burned the skin if touched hence the reason Londoners nicknamed it itchycoo.
  15. Over Bridges of Sighs To rest my eyes in shades of green Under Dreaming Spires To (TITLE OF SONG), that's where I've been What did you do there? - I got high What did you feel there? - Well I cried But why the tears there? - I'll tell you why - yyyyy It's all too beautiful, It's all too beautiful It's all too beautiful, It's all too beautiful feel inclined to blow my mind Get hung up, feed the ducks with a bun They all come out to groove about Be nice and have fun in the sun I'd like to go there now with you You can miss out school - Won't that be cool Why go to learn the words of fools?
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